Bx v -Bx
What if Wittgenstein, who was a known fan of Shakespeare (at least in his later years) thought the central question of metaphysics* was the famous “To be, or not to be? That is the question”? After all, wouldn’t that be schematized as Bx v -Bx? In which case, THE question is a tautology, and really doesn’t have much content at all?
When logically schematizing Shakespeare, everything is lost in translation.
*”Why is there Something instead of Nothing?
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